Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 05:07
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Since the Brits can't steer their oil tanker, what makes them think they can take on Russia?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.